[DGthe3]

Originally Posted by 8cd03gro

I understand why there is a torque based on simply analyzing the forces and the basic concept of torque, but in practice I can't think of a possible scenario where maximum torque output would not result in movement (unless an outside force is acting on the motor). I just don't understand how such a contradictory concept can exist. Most importantly, I know the relation between torque and angular accel, when referring to rotation, can be expressed as T=(mass moment intertia)(angular acceleration), so there is a direct relation between angular acceleration and total torque, so if angular acceleration is zero, so must be torque. . . Am I missing something here. . .? I can think of multiple examples of functions with domains (0,infinity), not [0,infinity) when torque is set to >0, that incorporate both torque and acceleration. I just don't understand how this is possible, unless it's situational and peak torque is only made at 0 rpm when there is an external load greater than the maximum torque output of the motor. . . which I guess makes sense.

I'm not trying to argue with you, just trying to understand why this is possible. I'm a physics student, so this kind of stuff drives me insane.

You're going to make me find my Electro Mechanical Energy Conversions textbook, aren't you? Alright ... wait for an edit on this post ...